Q: My question pertains to CPT® vasectomy code 55250. This code includes "unilateral or bilateral (separate procedure) including postoperative semen examination(s).” The CPT manual states that a reference laboratory that performs the semen analysis may bill separately for this service. May we bill CPT code 89321 ( semen analysis; sperm presence and motility of sperm, if performed .) in addition to 55250 when the laboratory performs the semen analysis and the surgeon only performs the vasectomy?
Q: We get an NCCI edit when billing an intramuscular/subcutaneous injection (CPT® code 96372) during the same encounter as billing an injection, infusion, or hydration. Should we append modifier -59 (distinct procedural service)? Does it matter if an IV line is already in place before intramuscular/subcutaneous administration?
Q: A patient suffered a nontraumatic intracerebral hemorrhage six months ago and is now being seen for long-standing aphasia as a result of the stroke. How would we code this in ICD-10-CM?
Q: If a patient has a spinal deformity on L5-S1 and we use the appropriate codes from 2280X and then the physician performs an arthrodesis/fusion on the same level, can we bill the appropriate fusion codes (225XX-226XX) as well? My impression is no, but I would love to get some insight into this question.
Q: A physician's office collects a pap specimen and sends the specimen to the hospital lab for processing. The physician's office lists ICD-9-CM code V72.31 (general gynecological examination with or without Papanicolaou cervical smear) as the diagnosis for this service. What is the proper diagnosis code for the hospital to use for billing when only processing the specimen?
Q: We received an outpatient radiology report (exam performed 7/11/12) where the radiologist states: CLINICAL INDICATION: LUMBOSACRAL NEURITIS EXAM: LUM SPINE AP/LAT CLINICAL STATEMENT: LUMBOSACRAL NEURITIS COMPARISON: MAY 23, 2012 FINDINGS: There is posterior spinal fusion L-3-L-5 with solid posterolateral bridging bone graft. Pedicle screws and rods are stable in position. There are bilateral laminectomy defects at L3-L-4. The vertebral body and disc space heights are preserved. The spinal alignment is maintained without evidence of spondylolisthesis. No acute fracture is identified. No lytic or blastic lesions are seen. The sacroiliac joints are unremarkable. IMPRESSION: Stable postsurgical changes with solid posterolateral fusion graft. Would you use the following ICD-9 codes: V67.09, 724.4. or 724.4, V45.4? Our coders disagree.
Q: A patient received Toradol 30 mg IV and Zofran 4 mg IV at 14:38. He also had normal saline wide open with documented start of 14:30 and stop of 15:40. Is the hydration chargeable as 96361 (intravenous infusion, hydration; each additional hour) even though the initial service is not 90 minutes? Is the hydration a concurrent service?
Q: In ICD-9-CM we only have one type of Excludes note. ICD-10-CM uses Excludes1 and Excludes2. What is the difference between the two types of Excludes notes and how do they relate to Excludes notes in ICD-9-CM?
Q: The rule our institution has followed with respect to HCPCS coded medications without a local coverage determination (LCD) is to limit prescribing to the FDA-approved indications. The question that arises is how closely do the physicians need to follow the package insert? For example, the drug basiliximab does not have an LCD and the FDA indication is: For acute kidney transplant rejection prophylaxis when used as part of an immunosuppressive regimen that includes cyclosporine and corticosteroids. Generally, physicians performing transplants at our institution do not use steroids or cyclosporine. They use tacrolimus, sirolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and/or mycophenolate sodium. If the physician performs a transplant without cyclosporine or steroids, do we need to have the patient sign an advanced beneficiary notice?
Q: A patient went to the operating room under anesthesia for cataract extraction and repair of retinal detachment of the same eye. The surgeon successfully removed the cataract. The surgeon then accessed the back of the eye to begin to repair the detachment. After reviewing the condition of this eye area, the surgeon determined that the eye was in such bad shape it could not be saved, so the detachment was not repaired and surgery was ended. The patient was under anesthesia and the retinal detachment repair procedure was begun (although barely) but then cancelled. Should we report this procedure since the facility incurred expenses for the surgical attempt at repair?
Q: How should we bill for the physician in the following situation? A patient who has end-stage renal disease (ESRD) comes into a hospital’s emergency department (ED) with an emergent condition (dialysis access clotted or chest pain that is ruled out), but misses his or her dialysis treatment. Part of the treatment is dialysis performed in the ED or as an outpatient. The hospital bills G0257 (unscheduled or emergency dialysis treatment for an ESRD patient in a hospital outpatient department that is not certified as an ESRD facility) as per CY 2003 OPPS Final Rule guidelines and Pub 100-04, Chapter 4, section 200.2
Q: Is nursing documentation of completion of physician-ordered procedures, such as splinting/strapping, Foley catheter insertion, etc., sufficient to assign a CPT ® code for billing the procedure on the facility side in the ED?
Q: CPT ® code 85660 (sickling of RBC, reduction) has a medically unlikely edit of one unit. We test blood for transfusion for sickle cell before we provide it to a sickle cell patient. If we test three units of blood prior to administering the blood to the patient, which modifier is more appropriate: -59 (distinct procedural service) or -91 (repeat laboratory test)?
Q: What CPT ® code best describes the Bier block procedure? We are toiling over this and the most recent CPT Assistant says to use 64999 (unlisted procedure, nervous system). But the article referenced is from 2004. We just want to make sure there is nothing more recent.
Q: It appears that one requirement for using CPT ® codes 15002–15005 with application of negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) is that the wound must be healing by primary intention. Can you explain this? We have never used these codes with preparation for vacuum assisted closure (VAC) placement, but it doesn't make sense, as NPWT is almost always used for wounds healing by secondary intention. Our physicians appreciate any clarification.
QUESTION: I work for a gastrointestinal (GI) practice and I have a question regarding the correct sequence for adding diagnosis codes to a claim. I have advised our physicians and billers that the primary diagnosis code is always the reason for the visit. I am a little confused about the remaining diagnosis codes the physician will write down in no specific order. Billers will report codes in the order the physicians write down the diagnoses and not always the reason for the visit. For example, a patient is referred for a consult due to weight loss. The patient comes for the consult and the physicians may put down 787.29 (other dysphagia), 401.1 (benign hypertension), 783.21 (abnormal loss of weight), 787.99 (change in bowel habits) in this order and leave it up to the person entering the info to figure it out. I would report 783.21 first since that was the reason for the visit but then I’ve been putting the GI codes next and then anything else last. What is the correct sequence when adding diagnosis codes to a claim?