Q: Is there guidance on reviewing a record, such as an operative note, that has not been signed by a physician? I am at a facility that allows coding from unsigned transcriptions. I was always told that the information needs to be confirmed by a signature as valid before including that information in the review worksheet. Do you have any recommendations for this?
Q: How many times should Glasgow Coma Scale information be captured? If you have the ambulance, ED physician, and attending physician all recording the score, should each be reported?
With all the complexities related to the implementation of ICD-10, it's no wonder that so many in the healthcare industry have a number of questions related to the various aspects of this new coding...
Q: If the physician does not perform a formal myelography and just administers an injection before the patient goes straight for computed tomography (CT), which CPT ® code would we report in 2015? The 2015 combination codes are for use when the same radiologist or physician who performs the injection reads his or her own study.
Q: I have a question regarding CPT® code 22558 (arthrodesis, anterior interbody technique, including minimal discectomy to prepare interspace; lumbar). I perform this exposure as a vascular surgeon, with the orthopedic surgeon preforming the spinal surgery. If I perform an anterior exposure for a spine deformity using code 22808 (arthrodesis, anterior, for spinal deformity, with or without cast; two to three vertebral segments), do I bill 22558 for the exposure?
QUESTION: We are a small anesthesia group and we are concerned about the specificity for ICD-10-CM. If we submit a claim with an unspecified code and the surgeon submits a claim with more specificity, will we still get paid?
Q: What CPT ® code best describes the Bier block procedure? We are toiling over this and the most recent CPT Assistant says to use 64999 (unlisted procedure, nervous system). But the article referenced is from 2004. We just want to make sure there is nothing more recent.
Q: Is it correct to append modifier -52 (reduced services) to a procedure code when the physician performed the procedure, but did not find a mass? This was unexpected, so the surgeon went deeper into the subcutaneous tissue and still did not find anything. This is the outpatient note for a patient with a history of breast cancer and a new lump on her arm with an indeterminate ultrasound: Under local anesthesia and sterile conditions, a vertical incision was made over the area of the palpable abnormality. We dissected down beneath the subcutaneous tissues. I could encounter no definitive mass or lesions in this area. We went down to the fascia of her bicep. Her biceps appear normal, and the skin and subcutaneous tissue appear normal. My presumption is that this represented some sort of venous anomaly, and I either popped it or incised it during our entry into the skin, and it is now resolved. Would CPT ® code 24075-52 (excision, tumor, soft tissue of upper arm or elbow area, subcutaneous; less than 3 cm) be correct to report?
Q: We are coding for pain management procedures and have been doing dual coding in ICD-9-CM and CPT ®. With a medial branch block ablation at two levels for L3-L4 and L4-L5 for a bilateral injection, we are coding: ICD-9-CM procedure code 04.2 (destruction of cranial and peripheral nerves) CPT codes 64635 (destruction by neurolytic agent, paravertebral facet joint nerve[s], with imaging guidance [fluoroscopy or CT]; lumbar or sacral, single facet joint) and 64636 (destruction by neurolytic agent, paravertebral facet joint nerve[s], with imaging guidance [fluoroscopy or CT]; lumbar or sacral, each additional facet joint [List separately in addition to code for primary procedure]), each with modifier -50 (bilateral procedure) appended. What would be your recommendation for the ICD-10-PCS code? Currently we are coding 015B3ZZ (destruction, lumbar nerve, percutaneous) twice. We are not sure if we should be picking this code up twice or only once.
