Q: ICD-9-CM includes Pott’s fracture as an alternate term for a bimalleolar fracture. However, ICD-10-CM doesn’t include that term in either the Alphabetic Index or the Tabular List. If the physician documents a Pott’s fracture, can we automatically use the code for bimalleolar fractures in ICD-10-CM, even though the term is not in the index?
Q: I’m in a little debate: Does documentation of the patient’s body mass index (BMI) need to come from an ancillary clinician, like the dietitian or nurse? I thought that we could use such ancillary documentation for clinical indicators supporting our physician query, but the treating physician needed to document the BMI. Can you help clarify this for me?
Q: How will I report the initial insertion of a dual-chamber pacemaker device in ICD-10-PCS? The physician inserted two leads—one into the atrium and one into the ventricle–using a percutaneous approach into the patient’s chest.
QUESTION: A patient had an aneurysm at arteriovenous (AV) fistula, and the physician excluded the aneurysm between two clamps, ends oversewn, and excised the aneurysm. The physician used a tunneler to tunnel an 8 mm Flixine graft from the arterial to the venous side, and two end-to-side anastomoses were then performed at the vein and arterial end. Should we report code 39.42 (revision of AV shunt for renal dialysis) with code 38.63 (other excision of vessel), or code 38.43 (resection of vessel with replacement), or another code(s)?
Q: A patient came to the ED with shortness of breath (SOB). The admitting diagnosis was possible acute coronary syndrome (ACS) due to SOB and elevated troponin levels. The ACS was ruled out. Elevated troponin levels were assumed to be due to chronic renal failure (CRF), and no reason was given for SOB. Before discharge, the patient was noted with an elevated temperature and found to have a urinary tract infection (UTI). All treatment was directed at the UTI, and the doctor noted the discharge diagnosis as the UTI. What would be the principal diagnosis in this case?
QUESTION: A patient was exposed to shingles, for which a coder reported ICD-9-CM code V01.79 (exposure to other viral diseases, including HIV). This poses a problem for billing as code V01.79 is a confidential diagnosis, requiring special release of information from the patient and would remain on the insurance record. As an RN and certified coder, I believed code V01.71 (exposure to varicella) is the correct code because the varicella virus causes both chicken pox and shingles. However, I am being overridden by the chief business office. Which code is correct?
QUESTION: A patient is admitted with pneumonia and atrial fibrillation and both are present on admission. The patient receives antibiotics for the pneumonia and a pacemaker during the stay, but undergoes no other procedures. Does the procedure automatically make ICD-9-CM code 427.31 for the atrial fibrillation the principal diagnosis?
Our experts answer questions about NCCI edits for injections, modifier -25, modifier -59, laminotomy with insertion of Coflex distraction device, billing mammogram for needle placement, and auditing electronic orders.
QUESTION: We are having a discussion about how to code when the studies section of the history and physical (H&P) indicates that the chest x-ray showed atelectasis or that an electrocardiogram showed right bundle branch block with anterior fascicular block. Some of us believe that it’s okay to code the diagnosis (i.e., atelectasis) if the provider states that the testing “showed” the diagnosis, whereas others believe we cannot code the diagnosis as it is a lab/testing result, and the provider could just be reading the results onto his or her H&P dictation. I realize you cannot go to the testing result itself and code from it directly. However, I argue that it would be okay to code for it because the provider is using this information to make decisions about care, testing, and procedures, and he or she indicates the testing results in the H&P body. What are your thoughts?
