Q: How would the following be viewed if it was included in a cardiology consult note: Mr. Jones has paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. He had a recurrence last night which was asymptomatic. We think this happens all the time at home. This is not a pacing post-conditioning (PPC). He is back in normal sinus rhythm (NSR). I would restart his warfarin if Dr. Smith will allow. Goal International Normalized Ratio (INR) is 2-3.
Q: We're wondering about how to use CPT ® code 73225 (magnetic resonance angiography [MRA], upper extremity, with or without contrast material) in our hospital. When providing an MRA of an upper extremity with and without contrast material, should we bill this service twice (since CPT indicates with or without contrast material) or only once?
Q: ICD-9-CM includes Pott’s fracture as an alternate term for a bimalleolar fracture. However, ICD-10-CM doesn’t include that term in either the Alphabetic Index or the Tabular List. If the physician documents a Pott’s fracture, can we automatically use the code for bimalleolar fractures in ICD-10-CM, even though the term is not in the index?
Q: My physicians perform procedures in the office such as angioplasties, catheter insertions, venograms, and repairs of grafts and fistulas. What is the proper way to code the medications they administered during the procedures?
Q: We know that we can look at the radiology report to get some specifics about a fracture. When it comes to an open fracture in ICD-10-CM, can you determine the Gustilo-Anderson classification, whether it's I, II, IIIA, IIIB, or IIIC, based on a description of the wound? Or does the physician actually have to document, “It's a Gustilo type I" or "type III”?
Q: A patient comes into the ED with sickle cell crisis and is in a lot of pain. The physician states the patient needed “aggressive” pain control for treatment, because what was given in the beginning provided only minimal relief. Could I code using CPT ® code 99285 (ED visit for evaluation and management of a patient, including a comprehensive history, comprehensive exam, and high complexity medical decision making)?
Q: We are coding for pain management procedures and have been doing dual coding in ICD-9-CM and CPT ®. With a medial branch block ablation at two levels for L3-L4 and L4-L5 for a bilateral injection, we are coding: ICD-9-CM procedure code 04.2 (destruction of cranial and peripheral nerves) CPT codes 64635 (destruction by neurolytic agent, paravertebral facet joint nerve[s], with imaging guidance [fluoroscopy or CT]; lumbar or sacral, single facet joint) and 64636 (destruction by neurolytic agent, paravertebral facet joint nerve[s], with imaging guidance [fluoroscopy or CT]; lumbar or sacral, each additional facet joint [List separately in addition to code for primary procedure]), each with modifier -50 (bilateral procedure) appended. What would be your recommendation for the ICD-10-PCS code? Currently we are coding 015B3ZZ (destruction, lumbar nerve, percutaneous) twice. We are not sure if we should be picking this code up twice or only once.
Q: I work for general surgeons. Here is a common scenario: The surgeon is called in to see patient in the ED for trauma or consult. The patient is admitted, but our physician is not the admitting physician. I would tend to bill the ED code set, but do I have to use the subsequent hospital care codes instead?
Q: A few days into the patient’s stay, an order for a Foley catheter was placed for incontinence and around the same time the physician documented a urinary tract infection (UTI). Would it be appropriate to query the physician regarding the relationship of the UTI to the Foley? Our infection control department caught this but we did not. I am concerned about this for two reasons; first, I worry about writing a leading query and second, whether the UTI could be considered a hospital-acquired condition (HAC) if additional documentation isn’t provided.
Q: If the clinical impression is physical assault, vomiting, blunt injury to abdomen, and head injury with loss of consciousness, can I code the history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, headache, bipolar disorder, and depression?
Q: I read that CPT ® code 20680 (removal of implant; deep, e.g., buried wire, pin, screw, metal band, nail, rod, or plate) is commonly used for deep hardware removal. What would be the proper code for removal on one screw that has already made its way out, is not under any muscle, and is easy to visualize?
Q: We had a question regarding documentation in a record of SIRS due to acute peritonitis without sepsis. Our critical care physician on that case called it severe sepsis as well. What would you do in a situation like that?
Q: My office often has denials of evaluation and management (E/M) visits with our OB patients when using HCPCS modifier -GB (claim being resubmitted for payment because it is no longer covered under a global payment demonstration). Would coding with V22.2 (pregnant state, incidental) as a secondary diagnosis possibly alleviate this issue?
Q: I’m in a little debate: Does documentation of the patient’s body mass index (BMI) need to come from an ancillary clinician, like the dietitian or nurse? I thought that we could use such ancillary documentation for clinical indicators supporting our physician query, but the treating physician needed to document the BMI. Can you help clarify this for me?