Q: I am auditing a note for a fusion. The note lacks detail, therefore is hard to justify. The patient had a prior hardware placement. The note describes dissecting down, debridement of necrotic bone, and tissue work done. This is the entire note, after describing dissection, “Vigorous irrigation with 10 liters of saline and antibiotics was carried out. Hemostasis was maintained. The right S1 screw and rod portion was removed as it was notably loose. Additional decortication and onlay bone grafting was performed at L1-S1. Drains were placed…” They coded: 22612 (arthrodesis, posterior or posterolateral technique, single level; lumbar) Add-on code 22614 (each additional vertebral segment) x4 22852 (removal of posterior segmental instrumentation) In the procedures performed area of the note, they state: Hardware removal, lumbar Revision fusion L1-S1 with onlay bone graft Irrigation and debridement of lumbar spine wound Since there is nothing in the note regarding autografting, I assume this is an allograft? Should this be coded? Also is that documentation enough to justify arthrodesis? Modifier -GC (this service has been performed in part by a resident under the direction of a teaching physician) was appended, although the language was not added for this. I can only assume a resident dictated this.
An overwhelming 87% of respondents to a recent survey by Navicure of physician practices said they are at least "somewhat confident" they will be ready for ICD-10 implementation by October 1.
The World Health Organization (WHO) is delaying the launch of ICD-11 until 2017. The WHO did not formally announce a delay, but its website now lists ICD-11 as due by 2017.
Q: I have a question regarding CPT® code 22558 (arthrodesis, anterior interbody technique, including minimal discectomy to prepare interspace; lumbar). I perform this exposure as a vascular surgeon, with the orthopedic surgeon preforming the spinal surgery. If I perform an anterior exposure for a spine deformity using code 22808 (arthrodesis, anterior, for spinal deformity, with or without cast; two to three vertebral segments), do I bill 22558 for the exposure?
Whether you work in a dedicated children’s hospital or a general hospital with a pediatric service line, you will likely come into contact with coding charts of kids. Sometimes they are easy (e.g., an inguinal hernia repair without obstruction or gangrene is an inguinal hernia repair without obstruction or gangrene—except it has to be identified as right or left in ICD-10). Sometimes they are not so easy (e.g., complex congenital diseases and their manifestations and complications).
Q: I am looking for information about to how to bill for a transnasal-endoscope approach in removing a skull-base tumor. I have never been comfortable with the doctors wanting to use CPT ® 61600 (resection or excision of neoplastic, vascular or infectious lesion of base of anterior cranial fossa; extradural) to bill a non-invasive procedure. I am perplexed about which CPT code(s) to report for this type of procedure.
Q: Can you explain when a neoplasm should be listed as the principal diagnosis? We have some coders who believe the neoplasm should always be the principal diagnosis.
Q: A patient presents with lower back pain and the physician documents findings of stenosis, degenerative “changes,” and mild facet arthropathy. Which diagnosis codes should we report? I would code 724.02 (stenosis, lumbar region, without neurogenic claudication) and 721.3 (lumbosacral spondylosis without myelopathy) for the facet degeneration. Another coder has stated that I cannot code 724.02, as the 721.3 diagnosis code will exclude the use of 724.02. Can you help with this scenario?
